if not why??
lets say a=b so they both = 1
a=b times both sides by a, theyre still equal
a^2=ab how about we - both sides by b^2
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b) lets cross out those a-b's now
theyre on each side so why not
So then, does 2 really equal 1???
everything is mathamaticly correct with this
Is this true???
Answer: The problem is when i canceled the a-b's
to do that i would have had to divide both sides by a-b
(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)
Can you divide anything by 0?? No....
if a and b are equal, then you are dividing by 0
so 2 does not equal 1