if not why??

lets say a=b so they both = 1

a=b times both sides by a, theyre still equal

a^2=ab how about we - both sides by b^2

a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 Facter!!!!

(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b) lets cross out those a-b's now

theyre on each side so why not

a+b=b

So then, does 2 really equal 1???

everything is mathamaticly correct with this

to do that i would have had to divide both sides by a-b

(a+b)(a-b) = b(a-b)

(a-b) (a-b)

Can you divide anything by 0?? No....

if a and b are equal, then you are dividing by 0

so 2 does not equal 1

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