RIDDLE ME THIS: Is this true??? if not why?? lets say a=b so they both = 1 a=b times both sides by a, theyre still equal a^2=ab how about we - both sides by b^2 a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 Facter!!!! (a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b) lets cross out those a-b's now theyre on each side so why not a+b=b So then, does 2 really equal 1??? everything is mathamaticly correct with this
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